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Question: Just one more of those 'fun with words' threads... ;-)

There are song lyrics that are grammatically incorrect: some work better that way, but some just grate, for various reasons. The one that got me started thinking about this is in the Burt Bacharach song 'What the World Needs Now' (or whatever its correct title). (OK, I just re-watched 'Austin Powers' - I'm usually more of a Megadeth/Fear Factory than a Burt Bacharach guy!)

What the world needs now, is love, sweet love That's the only thing, there's just too little of

OK, this one grates more than usual for me because, for those of us with non-Merkin accents (I'm Australian) it doesn't even rhyme. But it also has a split infinitive, or a dangling participle, or something (I'm pretty good to excellent on knowing what is correct grammar, but completely crap at the technical terminology!) So the grammatically correct version of the above might be something like:

What the world needs now, is love, sweet love That's the only thing, of which there's just too little

Of course, it now neither rhymes nor scans, but it's grammatically correct, dammit!

Can you think of other examples? I bet you can...


Answer: See, now, I was going to make my first actual post to the group in something of a [R]elevant strain, but you've hit on a pet peeve of mine--grammatical snobbery.

I believe the rule you are looking for is the one against ending a sentence with a preposition. This particular rule is one of those semi-controversial nonrules that English is littered with. Winston Churchill once wrote an essay with just such a sentence in it. An editor sent it back with a notation asking for a correction; Churchill returned it unchanged with the note, "This is the sort of errant pedantry the up with which I shall not put." (I love the phrase "errant pedantry": when someone pets my peeves my writing slips inevitably into unabashed errant pedantry.)

While many grammar experts (the evil, puppy kicking ones) insist on adherence to this rule, a number of them (the kind, saintly ones) argue that obeying rules so obviously pointless is just, well, errant pedantry.

Why so much controversy? Because back when the first English grammars were being written, the earliest grammarians used some rather odd standards. Instead of asking themselves "What rules are inherent to the syntax and commonly accepted usage of the language?" they asked themselves "What do they do in Latin?" or even better "What kind of annoying rules should I just make up to annoy future generations of English students?" Really. That's how the "don't end sentences with prepositions" rule came about: some guy whose name I don't remember at the moment (and can't look up, because the book I read about this in was lent out to someone and I haven't seen it since) was writing an English grammar, and for some reason decided to stick this rule in, despite the fact that people had been ending English sentences with prepositions for hundreds of years with no one ever thinking to object. But apparently people felt that if this guy bothered to write this rule in a book, than it must be true, so ever since we've been mangling any number of sentences in order to cram that inoffensive preposition anywhere but the tail.

As an aside (why not--this entire post has been apropos of nothing) the reason so grammarians used to ask "What do they do in Latin?" was because it was felt that Latin was the purist and most beautiful of languages, and the grammars of all other languages ought to be based on it. Now, I took four years of Latin, so I'm certainly open to the argument that Latin is one of the most beautiful languages there is. But to argue that we should base English grammar on Latin because it is the best language ever is a little like arguing that we should play football in ice-skates because you think hockey is the best game ever. This is where we get that stupidest of grammar rules: the split infinitive. According to many grammar snobs, you shouldn't split infinitives. Why? Because they don't split them in Latin. Of course the reason that they don't do it in Latin is because in Latin is because you can't--in English infinitives are two words, i.e. "to lecture"; whereas in Latin they are only one, i.e. "obiurgare". So in Latin you can't split an infinitive--"obiurgare infinite"--while in English there is no real reason you couldn't or shouldn't--"to interminably lecture".

I could go on like this forever (obviously) but since I I've probably already alienated most of the website I'll stop now. I promise my next post will be a) less boring, b) shorter, and c) more [R]elevant.

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